UGC NET PRACTICE SET

                            UGC NET

1. Which of the following is not instructional material ?

(A)    Over Head Projector                          (B)    Audio Casset

(C)    Printed Material                                 (D)    Transparency

2. Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(A)    Lecture Method can develop reasoning

(B)    Lecture Method can develop knowledge

(C)    Lecture Method is one way process

(D)    During Lecture Method students are passive

3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is :

(A)    To prepare students to pass examination

(B)    To develop the capacity to take decisions

(C)    To give new information

(D)    To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

4. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A)    Reliability ensures validity

(B)    Validity ensures reliability

(C)    Reliability and validity are independent of each other

(D)    Reliability does not depend on objectivity

5. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?

(A)    Ram got 45 marks out of 200

(B)    Mohan got 38 percent marks in English

(C)    Shyam got First Division in final examination

(D)    All the above

6. Research can be conducted by a person who :

(A)    has studied research methodology

(B)    holds a postgraduate degree

(C)    possesses thinking and reasoning ability

(D)    is a hard worker

7. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A)    Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis

(B)    Researcher must possess analytical ability

(C)    Variability is the source of problem

(D)    All the above

8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ?

(A)    Observation                              (B)     Historical

(C)    Survey                                      (D)    Philosophical

9. Research can be classified as :

(A)    Basic, Applied and Action Research

(B)    Quantitative and Qualitative Research

(C)    Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research

(D)    All the above

10. The first step of research is :

(A)    Selecting a problem                            (B)     Searching a problem

(C)    Finding a problem                               (D)    Identifying a problem

Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 :

After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and disham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls : as a nation, who are we ? As a people, where are we going ? The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the English woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, but an honourable friend. This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference : there is culture, not contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs : no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan (closeness). All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure – less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name : Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.

11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ?
(A)    Bling + bling                             (B)     Zeitgeist
(C)    Montaz                                     (D)    Dooriyan

12.    Who made Lamhe in 1991 ?
(A)    Subhash Ghai                           (B)     Yash Chopra
(C)    Aditya Chopra                          (D)    Sakti Samanta

13.    Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ?
(A)    Jewel in the Crown                            (B)     Kisna
(C)    Zaara                                                (D)    Desh Ki dharti

14.    Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ?
(A)    Deewar                                             (B)     Kabhi Kabhi
(C)    Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge      (D)    Veer Zaara

15.    Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ?
(A)    Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B)    Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C)    Traditional Punjabi Clothes
(D)    Traditional Madras Clothes

16.     Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication ?
(A)     Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
(B)     Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C)     The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D)     Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.

.

17.    Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ?
(A)    Zee News                                (B)     NDTV 24×7
(C)    CNBC  (D)    India News

18.    Consider the following statements in communication :
(i)      Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.
(ii)     Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
(iii)    Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation.
(iv)    Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A)     (i) and (iii)             (B)     (ii) and (iii)            (C)    (iv) only                 (D)    (iii) only

19.     Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A)     N. Ram : The Hindu
(B)     Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C)     Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7
(D)     Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak

20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by :
(A)    The Times of India                             (B)     The Hindu
(C)    Indian Express                              (D)    Hindustan Times

21.    In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is :
(A)    26                   (B)    24                      (C)    36                    (D)    32

22.    If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for
17, 19, 20, 9 and 8 :
(A)    PLANE                (B)     MOPED               (C)    MOTOR                (D)    TONGA

23.    The letters in the first set have certain relationship.   On the basis of this relationship  what is the right choice for the second set ?
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A)    ORW                    (B)     MPU                    (C)    MRW                    (D)    OPW

24.    In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as:
(A)    30          (B)   37           (C)   38             (D)   39

25.    The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of   1/2 :1/3 :1/4  If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of the smallest side is :
(A)    9 cm                     (B)     10 cm                   (C)    11 cm                    (D)    12 cm

26.     Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical ?

(A)     He was a bachelor, but he married recently.

(B)     He is a bachelor, but he married recently.

(C)     When he married, he was not a bachelor.

(D)     When he was a bachelor, he was not married.

.

27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory ?
(i)       All flowers are not fragrant.

(ii)      Most flowers are not fragrant.

(iii)     None of the flowers is fragrant.

(iv)     Most flowers are fragrant.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A)    (i) and (ii)                                 (B)     (i) and (iii)

(C)    (ii) and (iii)                                (D)    (iii) and (iv)

28. Which of the following statements say the same thing ?
(i)      “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)

(ii)     “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)

(iii)    “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)

(iv)    “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)

(v)     “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)

(vi)    “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code

(A)    (i) and (ii)                                 (B)     (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C)    (ii) and (vi)                               (D)    (v) and (vi)

29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing ?

(i)      There can be no second husband without a second wife.

(ii)     Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.

(iii)    A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.

(iv)    If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A)    (iii) and (iv)                               (B)     (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C)     (ii), (iii) and (iv)                         (D)    (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE ?

(i)      The sun will not rise in the East some day.

(ii)     A wooden table is not a table.

(iii)    Delhi city will be drowned under water.

(iv)    Cars run on water as fuel. Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A)    (i), (iii) and (iv)                                   (B)     Only (iii)

(C)    (i), (ii) and (iii)                                    (D)    (ii) alone

Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33 :

31. In the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum percent profit ?

(A)     a                   (B)    b                  (C)     d                    (D)    f

32. In the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum percent profit ?

(A)     a                   (B)   c                   (C)     d                    (D)   e

33. In the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned maximum average percent profit ?

(A)    f                    (B)   e                     (C)    d                    (D)   b

34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by :

(A)     UNDP                                              (B)     WTO

(C)     IMF                                                   (D)    World Bank

35. The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean marks obtained by each of the class are given below :

Class A      Class B      Class C      Class D
Number of students             10               40               30               20

Arithmetic mean                  20               30               50               15

35. The combined mean of the marks of four classes together will be :

(A)    32                  (B)   50                  (C)    20                    (D)    15

36. LAN stands for :

(A)    Local And National                            (B)     Local Area Network

(C)    Large Area Network                          (D)    Live Area Network

37. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A)     Modem is a software

(B)     Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage

(C)     Modem is the operating system

(D)     Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa

38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?

(A)     Computer is a machine that can process information.

(B)     Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both qualitative and
quantitative data quickly and accurately.

(C)     Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only quantitative data.

(D)     Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative
information

.  

39. Information and Communication Technology includes :

(A)    On line learning                                  (B)     Learning through the use of EDUSAT

(C)    Web Based Learning                         (D)    All the above

40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail ?
(A)     www_mail.com                                (B)     www@mail.com

(C)     WWW@mail.com                            (D)    www.mail.com

41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of :
(A)    change in weather                              (B)     sinking of islands

(C)     loss of vegetation                               (D)    extinction of animals

42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be :

(A)     decrease in temperature                     (B)     increase in salinity

(C)     growth of phytoplankton                    (D)    rise in sea level

43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Column I                                     Column II
Water Quality                                pH Value
(a)     Neutral                               (i)    5
(b)     Moderately acidic              (ii)    7
(c)     Alkaline                             (iii)    4
(d)     Injurious                            (iv)    8

Code :
(a)     (b)    (c)     (d)
(A)    (ii)     (iii)    (i)      (iv)
(B)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)     (iv)
(C)    (ii)     (i)     (iv)     (iii)
(D)    (iv)    (ii)    (iii)      (i)

44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by :
(A)    Coal     (B)     Firewood

(C)    Refuse burning         (D)    Vegetable waste product

45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain :

(A)    faster than that in rural areas

(B)    slower than that in rural areas

(C)    the same as that in rural areas

(D)    cooler than that in rural areas

46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of :

(A)    Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission

(B)    Mudaliar Commission

(C)    Sargent Commission

(D)    Kothari Commission

47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking ?

(A)    Article 19              (B)     Article 29             (C)    Article 30              (D)    Article 31

48. Match List – I (Institutions) with List – II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below :

List – I (Institutions)                 List – II (Functions)
(a)    Parliament                          (i) Formulation of Budget
(b)    C & A.G.                          (ii) Enactment of Budget
(c)    Ministry of Finance            (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d)    Executing Departments      (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income

Code :
(a)     (b)   (c)     (d)
(A)   (iii)   (iv)    (ii)      (i)
(B)   (ii)    (iv)     (i)     (iii)
(C)   (v)    (iii)   (iv)     (ii)
(D)   (iv)   (ii)    (iii)     (v)

49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by :

(A)   Indian Institute of Public Administration

(B)   Administrative Staff College of India

(C)   L.B.S. National Academy of Administration

(D)   Centre for Advanced Studies

50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by :

(A)   Election Commission of India

(B)   Joint  Committee of Parliament

(C)   Supreme Court of India

(D)   Central Election Tribunal

        

               UGC NET

1. Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of :
(A)    Aptitudes    (B)     Skills
(C)    Attitudes    (D)    Relationship

2.    Which is the most important aspect of the teacher’s role in learning ?
(A)    The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance
(B)    The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to be avoided
(C)    The provision of encouragement and moral support
(D)    The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help

3.    The most appropriate purpose of learning is :
(A)    personal adjustment    (B)     modification of behaviour
(C)    social and political awareness        (D)    preparing oneself for employment

4.    The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be :
(A)    encouraged to find answer independently
(B)    advised to meet the teacher after the class
(C)    encouraged to continue questioning
(D)    advised not to disturb during the lecture

5.    Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through :
(A)    discussion method    (B)     lecture method
(C)    audio-visual aids    (D)    text book method

6.    Generalised conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as :
(A)    Data analysis and interpretation
(B)    Parameter inference
(C)    Statistical inference
(D)    All of the above

7.    The experimental study is based on :
(A)    The manipulation of variables   (B)     Conceptual parameters
(C)    Replication of research    (D)    Survey of literature

8.    The main characteristic of scientific research is :
(A)    empirical    (B)     theoretical
(C)    experimental    (D)    all of the above

9.    Authenticity of a research finding is its :
(A)    Originality    (B)     Validity
(C)    Objectivity    (D)    All of the above

10.    Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite ?
(A)    Area Sampling Technique    (B)     Purposive Sampling Technique
(C)    Systematic Sampling Technique    (D)    None of the above

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

Gandhi’s overall social and environmental philosophy is based on what human beings need rather than what they want. His early introduction to the teachings of Jains, Theosophists, Christian sermons, Ruskin and Tolstoy, and most significantly the Bhagavad Gita, were to have profound impact on the development of Gandhi’s holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological interrelation. His deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an ambience for an alternative social thinking that was at once far-sighted, local and immediate. For Gandhi was acutely aware that the demands generated by the need to feed and sustain human life, compounded by the growing industrialization of India, far outstripped the finite resources of nature. This might nowadays appear naive or commonplace, but such pronouncements were as rare as they were heretical a century ago. Gandhi was also concerned about the destruction, under colonial and modernist designs, of the existing infrastructures which had more potential for keeping a community flourishing within ecologically-sensitive traditional patterns of subsistence, especially in the rural areas, than did the incoming Western alternatives based on nature-blind technology and the enslavement of human spirit and energies.
Perhaps the moral principle for which Gandhi is best known is that of active non-violence, derived from the traditional moral restraint of not injuring another being. The most refined expression of this value is in the great epic of the Mahabharata, (c. 100 BCE to 200 CE), where moral development proceeds through placing constraints on the liberties, desires and acquisitiveness endemic to human life. One’s action is judged in terms of consequences and the impact it is likely to have on another. Jainas had generalized this principle to include all sentient creatures and biocommunities alike. Advanced Jaina monks and nuns will sweep their path to avoid harming insects and even bacteria.  Non-injury is a non-negotiable universal prescription.

11. Which one of the following have a profound impact on the development of Gandhi’s holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological interrelations ?
(A)    Jain teachings    (B)     Christian sermons
(C)    Bhagavad Gita    (D)    Ruskin and Tolstoy

12.    Gandhi’s overall social and environmental philosophy is based on human beings’ :
(A)    need    (B)     desire
(C)    wealth    (D)    welfare 

13.    Gandhiji’s deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created
an ambience for an alternative :
(A)    rural policy    (B)     social thinking
(C)    urban policy    (D)    economic thinking

14.    Colonial policy and modernisation led to the destruction of :
(A)    major industrial infrastructure
(B)    irrigation infrastructure
(C)    urban infrastructure
(D)    rural infrastructure

15.    Gandhi’s active non-violence is derived from :
(A)    Moral restraint of not injuring another being
(B)    Having liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
(C)    Freedom of action
(D)    Nature-blind technology and enslavement of human spirit and energies

16.    DTH service was started in the year :
(A)    2000    (B)  2002
(C)    2004 (D) 2006

17.    National Press day is celebrated on :
(A)    16th November    (B)     19th November
(C)    21th November    (D)    30th November

18.    The total number of members in the Press Council of India are :
(A)    28    (B)     14
(C)    17    (D)    20

19.    The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article :
(A)    19 (2) (a)    (B)     19(16)
(C)    19(2)          (D)    19(1) (a)

20.    Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of :
(A)    Enriching curriculum based instruction
(B)    Replacing teacher in the long run
(C)    Everybody having access to a radio set
(D)    Other means of instruction getting outdated

21.    Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the
following series:   5, 4, 9, 17, 35, ? = 139
(A)    149    (B)     79
(C)    49      (D)    69

Questions 22 to 24 are based on the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles I, S and P, where circle I stands for Indians, circle S for Scientists and circle P for Politicians. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f

22.The region which represents Non-Indian Scientists who are Politicians :
(A)    f    (B)     d
(C)    a    (D)    c

23.    The region which represents Indians who are neither Scientists nor Politicians :
(A)    g    (B)     c
(C)    f    (D)    a

24.    The region which represents Politicians who are Indians as well as Scientists :
(A)    b    (B)     c
(C)    a    (D)    d

25.    Which number is missing in the following series ?
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A)    63    (B)     65
(C)    67    (D)    69

26.    The function of measurement includes :
(A)    Prognosis    (B)     Diagnosis
(C)    Prediction    (D)    All of the above

27.    Logical arguments are based on:
(A)    Scientific reasoning           (B)     Customary reasoning
(C)    Mathematical reasoning    (D)    Syllogistic reasoning

28.    Insert the missing number:
4 : 17 : : 7 : ?
(A)    48    (B)     49
(C)    50    (D)    51

29.    Choose the odd word:
(A)    Nun       (B)     Knight
(C)    Monk    (D)    Priest

30.     Choose the number which is different from others in the group :
(A)    49    (B)     63
(C)    77    (D)    81

31.    Probability sampling implies:
(A)    Stratified Random Sampling    (B)Systematic Random Sampling
(C)    Simple Random Sampling    (D)  All of the above

32.    Insert the missing number:
36/62 ,  39/63,  43/61, 48/64, ?
(A)    51/65         (B) 56/60
(C)    54/65         (D) 33/60

34.    Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three children is a boy?
(A)   1/8    (B) 1/3
(C)   3/4     (D)  1

35.    If the radius of a circle is increased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased by :
(A)    125 per cent    (B)     100 per cent
(C)    75 per cent    (D)    50 per cent

36.     CD ROM stands for :
(A)    Computer Disk Read Only Memory
(B)    Compact Disk Read Over Memory
(C)    Compact Disk Read Only Memory
(D)    Computer Disk Read Over Memory

37.    The ‘brain’ of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is called :
(A)    Common Power Unit    (B)     Common Processing Unit
(C)    Central Power Unit       (D)    Central Processing Unit

38.    Data can be saved on backing storage medium known as :
(A)    Compact Disk Recordable    (B)     Computer Disk Rewritable
(C)    Compact Disk Rewritable    (D)    Computer Data Rewritable

39.    RAM means :
(A)    Random Access Memory    (B)    Rigid Access Memory
(C)    Rapid Access Memory    (D)    Revolving Access Memory

40.    www represents :
(A)    who what and where    (B)    weird wide web
(C)    word wide web    (D)    world wide web

41.    Deforestation during the recent decades has led to :
(A)    Soil erosion    (B)     Landslides
(C)    Loss of bio-diversity    (D)    All the above

42.    Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing highest human disaster ?
(A)    Earthquakes           (B) Snow-storms
(C)    Volcanic eruptions  (D) Tsunami

43.    Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation ?
(A)    International AID    (B)     Timely Warning System
(C)    Rehabilitation    (D)    Community Participation

44.     Slums in metro-city are the result of :
(A)    Rural to urban migration    (B)     Poverty of the city-scape
(C)    Lack of urban infrastructure    (D)    Urban-governance

45.     The great Indian Bustard bird is found in :
(A)    Thar Desert of India
(B)    Coastal regions of India
(C)    Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
(D)    Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot

46.    The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as :
(A)    SATEDU    (B)     INSAT – B
(C)    EDUSAT    (D)    INSAT-C

47.    Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as :
(A)    GyanDarshan    (B)     Cyan Vani
(C)    DoorDarshan    (D)    Prasar Bharati

48.    The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in:
(A)    Sevagram    (B)     New Delhi
(C)    Wardha    (D)    Ahmedabad

49.    Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I                                                                                List-II
(Institutes)                                                                       (Locations)
(a)    Central Institute of English                             (i)      Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages
(b)    Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya                        (ii)     Hyderabad
(c)    Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies     (iii)    New Delhi
(d)    IGNOU                                                       (iv)    Dharmasala
Codes :
(a)    (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)    (ii)    (i)    (iv)    (iii)
(B)    (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)
(C)    (iii)    (iv)    (i)    (ii)
(D)    (i)    (ii)    (iv)    (iii)

50.    The aim of vocationalization of education is :
(A)    preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
(B)    converting liberal education into vocational education
(C)    giving more importance to vocational than general education
(D)    making liberal education job-oriented

 

                 UGC NET

1.    The teacher has been glorified by the phrase “Friend, philosopher and guide” because :
(A)    He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
(B)    He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C)    He is the great reformer of the society
(D)    He is a great patriot

students  

2.    The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of :
(A)    inter personal relationship
(B)    lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C)    verbal ability
(D)    strict handling of the students

3.    A teacher can establish rapport with his students by :
(A)    becoming a figure of authority
(B)    impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C)    playing the role of a guide
(D)    becoming a friend to the students

4.    Education is a powerful instrument of :
(A)    Social transformation    (B)     Personal transformation
(C)    Cultural transformation    (D)    All the above

5.    A teacher’s major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the student is affected through :
(A)    Constant fulfilment of the students’ needs
(B)    Strict control of class-room activities
(C)    Sensitivity to students’ needs, goals and purposes
(D)    Strict reinforcement of academic standards

6.    Research problem is selected from the stand point of :
(A)    Researcher’s interest    (B)    Financial support
(C)    Social relevance    (D)    Availability of relevant literature

7.    Which one is called non-probability sampling ?
(A)    Cluster sampling    (B)     Quota sampling
(C)    Systematic sampling    (D)    Stratified random sampling

8.    Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in :
(A)    Survey method    (B)     Historical studies
(C)    Experimental studies    (D)    Normative studies

9.      Field-work based research is classified as :
(A)    Empirical    (B)     Historical
(C)    Experimental    (D)    Biographical

10.    Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006 ?
(A)    Cluster sampling    (B)    Systematic sampling
(C)    Quota sampling    (D)    Stratified random sampling

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that are left out of the group and that differentia must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14 is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal protection of laws. In the very nature of things the society being composed of unequals a welfare State will have to strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition so that the social and economic inequality in the society may be bridged. This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically appraising the social and economic inequality and keeping in view the guidelines on which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour. Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle correlated to the object sought to be achieved.The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law should be equal and should be equally administered and that the likes should be treated alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different shall be as though they are the same. It ofcourse means denial of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The legislation as well as the executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of making special laws, to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon which such laws are to operate.

11.    Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the constitution under Part III, Article :
(A)    12    (B)     13
(C)    14 

12.    The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits :
(A)    class legislation
(B)    equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C)    absolute equality
(D)    special privilege by reason of birth

13.    The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by :
(A)    executive and legislative action
(B)    universal suffrage
(C)    identical treatment
(D)    none of the above

14.    The doctrine of classification is evolved to :
(A)    Help weaker sections of the society
(B)    Provide absolute equality
(C)    Provide identical treatment
(D)    None of the above

15.    While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations, the government
(A)    must have the power of making special laws
(B)    must not have any power to make special laws
(C)    must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D)    none of the above

16.    Communication with oneself is known as :
(A)    Group communication
(B)    Grapevine communication
(C)    Interpersonal communication
(D)    Intrapersonal communication

17.    Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India ?
(A)    NTSE    (B)     PAL
(C)    SECAM    (D)    NTCS

See Answer

(B)     PAL

18.    All India Radio before 1936 was known as :
(A)    Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B) 
(C)    Indian Broadcasting Service
(D)    All India Broadcasting Service

                                                                                                                                        

19.    The biggest news agency of India is :
(A)    PTI    (B)     UNI
(C)    NANAP    (D)    Samachar Bharati

20.    Prasar Bharati was launched in the year :
(A)    1995    (B)     1997    (C)    1999    (D)    2001

21.    A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as:
(A)    Sample parameter
(B)    Inference
(C)    Statistics
(D)    None of these

22.    The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that :
(A)    There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B)    It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C)    It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
(D)    It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.

23.    The F-test:
(A)    is essentially a two tailed test.
(B)    is essentially a one tailed test.
(C)    can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D)    can never be a one tailed test.

24.    What will be the next letter in the following series :
DCXW, FGVU, HGTS
(A)    AKPO    (B)     JBYZ    (C)    JIRQ    (D)    LMRS

25. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two small circles represent formal class-room education and distance education and the big circle stands for university system of education, which figure represents the university systems.

(B)  

26.    The statement, ‘To be non-violent is good’ is a :
(A)    Moral judgement    (B)     Factual judgement
(C)    Religious judgement    (D)    Value judgement

27.    Assertion (A) :   Man is a rational being.
Reason (R):   Man is a social being.
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)    (A) is true but (R) is false
(D)    (A) is false but (R) is true

28.    Value Judgements are:
(A)    Factual Judgements
(B)    Ordinary Judgements
(C)    Normative Judgements
(D)    Expression of public opinion

29.    Deductive reasoning proceeds from :
(A)    general to particular
(B)    particular to general
(C)    one general conclusion to another general conclusion
(D)    one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion

30.    AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is :
(A)    1641    (B)     1416    (C)    1441    (D)    1461

31.    Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population data ?
(A)    National Family Health Surveys
(B)    National Sample Surveys
(C)    Census
(D)    Demographic Health Surveys

32.    Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling ?
(A)    Sample units must be clearly defined
(B)    Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C)    Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D)    Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner

33.    If January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995 ?
(A)    Sunday    (B)     Monday
(C)    Friday    (D)    Saturday

34.    Insert the missing number in the following series :
4       16     8       64     ?        256
(A)    16    (B)     24    (C)    32    (D)    20

35.    If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would be its selling price in order to earn a profit of 11%?
(A)    Rs. 222.50    (B)     Rs. 267    (C)    Rs. 222    (D)    Rs. 220

36.    WYSIWYG – describes the display of a document on screen as it will actually print:
(A)    What you state is what you get
(B)    What you see is what you get
(C)    What you save is what you get
(D)    What you suggest is what you get

37.    Which of the following is not a Computer language ?
(A)    PASCAL    (B)     UNIX
(C)    FORTRAN    (D)    COBOL

See Answer

(B)     UNIX

38.    A key-board has at least:
(A)    91 keys    (B)    101 keys
(C)    111 keys    (D)    121 keys

See Answer

(B)    101 keys

39.    An E-mail address is composed of :
(A)    two parts    (B)    three parts
(C)    four parts    (D)    five parts

40.    Corel Draw is a popular :
(A)    Illustration programme    (B)    Programming language
(C)    Text programme    (D)    None of the above

41.    Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges :
(A)    l-2KHz    (B)     100-500 Hz
(C)    10-12 KHz    (D)    13-16 KH

Note: 2 – 5 khz is most sensitive

42.    Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise ?
(A)    decible    (B)     Hz    (C)    Phon    (D)    Watts/mP

43.    If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield :
(A)    is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B)    is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C)    depends on growth rates.
(D)    depends on the initial population.

44.    Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon :
(A)    high temperature    (B)     strong wind action
(C)    heavy rainfall    (D)    glaciation

45.    Structure of earth’s system consists of the following :
Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
List-I (Zone)            List-II (Chemical Character)
(a)     Atmosphere        (i)    Inert gases
(b)     Biosphere           (ii)    Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
(c)     Hydrosphere      (iii)    Organic substances, skeleton matter
(d)     Lithosphere        (iv)    Light silicates
Codes :
(a)     (b)     (c)    (d)
(A)    (ii)     (iii)    (i)    (iv)
(B)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)    (iv)
(c)    (ii)      (i)      (iii)   (iv)
(D)    (iii)    (i)      (ii)    (iv)

46.     NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of :
(A)    ICSSR    (B)     CSIR
(C)    AICTE    (D)    UGC

47.    National Council for Women’s Education was established in :
(A)    1958    (B)     1976    (C)    1989   (D)    2000

48.    Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi ?
(A)    Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B)    Indian Council of Scientific Research
(C)    National Council of Educational Research and Training
(D)    Indian Institute of Advanced Studies

49.    Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in :
(A)    Administration    (B)     Policy-making
(C)    Finance    (D)    Curriculum development

50.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Institutions)                              List-II (Locations)
(a)     Dr. Hari Singh Gour University           (i)    Mumbai
(b)     S.N.D.T. University                           (ii)    Baroda
(c)     M.S. University                                 (iii)    Jodhpur
(d)     J.N. Vyas University                         (iv)    Sagar
Codes :
(a)     (b)     (c)     (d)
(A)   (iv)     (i)      (ii)      (iii)
(B)    (i)      (ii)     (ui)    (iv)
(C)    (iii)    (i)      (ii)     (iv)
(D)    (ii)     (iv)    (i)      (iii)

                           UGC NET

1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based on :
(A) Linguistic expression
(B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D) Comprehension of subject

2. Why do teachers use teaching aid ?
(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To teach within understanding level of students
(C) For students’ attention
(D) To make students attentive

3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of :
(A) Learning (B) Research (C) Heredity (D) Explanation

4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact ?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV

5. Which of the following is not a product of learning ?
(A) Attitudes (B) Concepts (C) Knowledge (D) Maturation

6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced ?
(A) Through its impartiality (B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity (D) All of these

7. Action-research is :
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) All the above

8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated :
(A) Cultural background of the country
(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these

9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research ?
(A) Philosophical research (B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research (D) All the above

10. We use Factorial Analysis :
(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :
While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings, democracy was and is far better alternative to
the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days. However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.

In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it’s rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society. Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition. The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue. It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule. Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength – is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration. When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament. There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.

Answer the following questions :
11. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers :
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all

12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain ?
(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.

13. Democracy is practiced where :
(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.

14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India ?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.

15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time ?
(A) British Aristocrats (B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons (D) Merchants and artisans

16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world ?
(A) TPS (B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference (D) Video teletext

17. Which is not 24 hours news channel ?
(A) NDTV24x7 (B) ZEE News
(C) Aajtak (D) Lok Sabha channel

18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is :
(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D) Entertainment only

19. In communication chatting in internet is :
(A) Verbal communication (B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication (D) Grapevine communication

20. Match List-I with List-II and selec List-I t the correct answer using the codes gh List-II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist
(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

21. Insert the missing number in the following :
3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37 (B) 40 (C) 38 (D) 45

22. In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A) SPEST (B) SPSET (C) SPETS (D) SEPTS

23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set : BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL (B) RPNL (C) LNPR (D) LJHF

Note: The answer for the question should be TQNL

24. What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001 ?
(A) Friday (B) Tuesday (C) Sunday (D) Wednesday

Note: Above answers are wrong it should be Monday

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34 (C) 43 (D) 48

26. In a deductive argument conclusion is :
(A) Summing up of the premises
(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises

27. ‘No man are mortal’ is contradictory of :
(A) Some man are mortal (B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal (D) No mortal is man

28. A deductive argument is valid if:
(A) premises are false and conclusion true
(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true

29. Structure of logical argument is based on :
(A) Formal validity (B) Material truth
(C) Linguistic expression (D) Aptness of examples

30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to ?
(A) East and West (B) North and West
(C) South and East (D) None of these

Question Nos. 31 to 35 NOT FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED CANDIDATES
Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following venn diagram in which there are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.

31. If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the following is to be selected ?
(A) g (B) b (C) c (D) e

32. If you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A) e (B) g (C) b (D) a

Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.

33. In which year the quantity of engineering goods’ exports was maximum ?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006 (C) 2004 (D) 2007

34. In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent compared to the previous year?
(A) 2004 (B) 2007 (C) 2005 (D) 2006

35. In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the quantity of previous year?
(A) 2004 (B) 2005 (C) 2006 (D) 2007

36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www ?
(A) a connection to internet (B) a web browser (C) a web server (D) all of the above

(D) all of the above

37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India ?
(A) Essar (B) BPL (C) Hutchison (D) Airtel

38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from :
(A) Bangalore (B) Sri Harikota (C) Chennai (D) Ahmedabad

39. What is blog?
(A) Online music
(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search

40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website ?
(A) www.jeevansathi.com (B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com (D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com

41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in :
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above

42. Bog is a wetland that receives water from :
(A) nearby water bodies (B) melting
(C) rain fall only (D) sea only

43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes ?
(A) Central Indian Highland (B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region (D) Indian desert

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Institutes) (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata
(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

45. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year :
(A) 2005 (B) 2004 (C) 2006 (D) 2007

46. The Kothari Commission’s report was entitled on :
(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy

47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University ?
(A) Delhi University (B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as “Code of Administrators” ?
(A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV

49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament ?
(A) Article 371 A (B) Article 371 B (C) Article 371 C (D) Article 263

50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance ?
(A) Right to information (B) Citizens’ Charter
(C) Social Auditing (D) Judicial Activism

                          UGC NET

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9 (C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry

5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.

6. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind. How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real. The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered. Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge

9. Concept means
(A) A mental image  (B) A reality   (C) An idea expressed in language form   (D) All the above

10. The relation of  Percepts to Concept is
(A) Positive   (B) Negative  (C) Reflective   (D) Absolute

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe   (B) The Human Habitat  (C) A Celestial Body   (D) A Planet

12. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image

13. Action research means
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective

14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above

15. A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above

18. Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is
(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income

20. Post-modernism is associated with
(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television

21. Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organisational
(D) relational

22. In communication, the language is
(A) the non-verbal code
(B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code

23. Identify the correct sequence of the following :
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver

24. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday  (B) Friday  (C) Saturday  (D) Sunday

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit ?
(A) Water  (B) Tree (C) World  (D) Earth

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E ?
(A) Brother  (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law  (D) Brother-in-law

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded ?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH

30. Find the next number in the following series : 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63 (B) 65 (C) 67 (D) 69

31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument ?
(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(A) he is religious
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich
(D) he is rational

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions :
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

34. Certainty is
(A) an objective fact
(B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical
(D) ontological

Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non- Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f   (B) d   (C) a   (D) c

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
(A) b   (B) c  (C) a   (D) d

37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below :

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot ?
(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in per tonnes. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.

38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period ?
(A) Saw timber  (B) Plywood  (C) Log  (D) None of the above

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
(A) 6  (B) 12  (C) 18  (D) 20

40. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased ?
(A) 2000  (B) 2002  (C) 2003  (D) 2006

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics

42. In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%  (B) ~ 67%  (C) ~ 97%  (D) ~ 47%

43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer ?
(A) 2  (B) 8  (C) 10  (D) 16

44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System ?
(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows

45. Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23 ?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above

46. Which one of the following is different from other members ?
(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac

47. Where does a computer add and compare its data ?
(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk
(D) Floppy disk

48. Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address
(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above

49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of
(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above

50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives ?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical

51. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics

52. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme

53. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide

54. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
Reason (R) : The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

55. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture  2. forest fires  3. biodiversity 4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.

57. Which option is not correct ?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th Constitutional Amendment

58. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India ?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                                  List – II
(Articles of the Constitution)                                        (Institutions)
(a) Article 280                                                  (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324                                                  (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323                                                  (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315                                                  (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(A) (i)   (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(B) (iii)  (ii)  (i)   (iv)
(C) (ii)  (iii)  (iv)  (i)
(D) (ii)  (iv)  (iii)  (i)

60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council.